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DeepLeftAnalysis🔸's avatar

I would add to this discussion the hypothesis that primogeniture as a historical practice maximized the mating potential of the first-born son. If the wealth were divided amongst all the sons (say there were 2 sons), each son would have half the mating potential. Assume a threshold of mating potential, like if a man inherits less than $10k he doesn't breed. Pooling all the resources for the first born son is an extremely effective way of ensuring that the line continues. Traditions which practiced primogeniture would genetically outcompete (in Y-DNA at least) traditions which did not.

Primogeniture fortified certain Y-DNA lines with this particular culture practice. Assuming an unbroken line of paternity, primogeniture would end up producing a mating arrangement where a few dudes (Charlemagne, Genghis Khan, Mohammed, Abraham, "Zeus", "Odin," etc) would appear to be the only men to have bred at all. This doesn't require polygamy -- merely that the first-born son has his breeding potential maximized through inheritance.

This is one of those topics where I think this article would serve as a great script for a video essay. I'm just getting into the topic now so still learning and correcting my preconceived chadopoloy notions.

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Andrew's avatar

The “rapidly growing population” case is interesting. Assuming for arguments sake roughly equal numbers of male & female children surviving to adulthood but that females marry approximately 5 years younger, a growing population would indeed result in a surplus of marriageable women whereas a stable population would not

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